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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/RusticBohemian on 2023-10-18 02:06:33+00:00.

Original Title: Were ancient Christians ever actually communists who believed the redistribution of all wealth (Acts 4:34-35), and enforced it through the killing of the noncompliant (Acts 5:1-11)? If so, what did this look like, and when was it? When and why did Christians ok wealth inequality?